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Usage of the " 's " in this sentence

snakeblock30
Hey!! I was watching arcane subtitled in English and someone said "Vander's got a deal". Is it a misspelling on the subtitle file (that I found on opensubtitles) because the " 's " means afaik the appartenance or the contraction of "is"?

11 comments

lime--greenā€¢
In this case, "'s" is a contraction of "has" "Vander has got a deal"
DthDisguiseā€¢
No, the subtitle is correct. " 's" isn't just for "is." It can also indicate "has" as in the subtitles, or it could denote possession. Figuring out which you're reading requires time and experience to interpret context clues.
Apprehensive-Ear2134ā€¢
In this case, itā€™s a contraction of ā€œVander hasā€
SupermarketWise2229ā€¢
The subtitle is correct. The contraction here means ā€œVander has got a dealā€ - you can contract ā€œhasā€ as an apostrophe s when followed by the main verb of that clause (here, the verb is ā€œgotā€). You can see this same construction in the sentence ā€œitā€™s been a long timeā€ - here, ā€œitā€™sā€ means ā€œit hasā€
Evil_Weevillā€¢
's can indicate possession It can be a contraction for "is" And in this case it can be a contraction for "has" Which one it is typically is obvious through context. Like in your example they're not talking about something Vander possesses and "is" doesn't make sense" so it's "has" Vander has got a deal
PSquared1234ā€¢
In English, the " 's " contraction can denote contracting "is" - "John's heading home." It can also denote contracting "has". In your sentence, what is meant is "Vander **has** got a deal." You have undoubtedly seen "have" in a contraction as in "you've". Same thing, but a whole lot more confusing, because of the ambiguity between "is" and "has" contraction, and the possessive. Context will be your guide.
truelovealwayswinsā€¢
ā€˜s is possessive, belonging to whereas s without the apostrophe would be plural, for instance, if the personā€™s name is Vanders too many native english speakers, especially if itā€™s their only language, canā€™t seem to manage that unfortunatelyā€¦
-qqqwwweeerrrtttyyy-ā€¢
A) 's can be a contraction of *'word + is'* B) 's can be a possessive marker *'something belonging to the subject or object'* C) Where some English speakers struggle is not knowing that you do not use 's for plurals. D) Also, if a name already ends in an s, only the apostrophe is needed.Ā  E) This includes if something belongs to a plural number of things ending in an s. For example: (for someone called VANDER (No s)) A) Vander's on the phone = Vander is on the phone B) Vander's shoes are cool = The shoes belonging to Vander are cool C) Vander collects shoes = correct Vander collects shoes's = incorrect D) (for someone called VANDERS - (with S)) Vanders' at the door = Vanders is at the door Vanders' socks are new = the socks belonging to Vanders are new E) The Vanders' have invited us to their party = The Vanders family (or couple) has invited us to their party
Tommseyā€¢
Side note, since no-one else has brought it up: "appartenance" is not an English word
Snorlaxolotlā€¢
Also, afaik, the contracted has in this scenario isnā€™t used the same way as the verb ā€œto haveā€ usually is: instead, itā€™s used as part of perfect verb tenses (such as in the sentence ā€œJohn **has left**.ā€).
Embarrassed-Weird173ā€¢
It also works for "has".